Once again contrary to your opinion the Biblical narrative has everything to do with genetics and in particular blood lines. Why do you think that we as humanity are redeemed and saved by the blood of the lamb? “If the woman had not separated from the man, she should not die with the man. His separation became the beginning of death. Because of this, Christ came to repair the separation, which was from the beginning, and again unite the two, and to give life to those who died as a result of the separation, and unite them.” “Adam came into being from two virgins, from the Spirit and from the virgin earth. Christ, therefore, was born of a virgin to rectify the fall which occurred in the beginning.” – The Gospel Of Phillip
If the Biblical narrative has nothing to do with blood or genetics, why did Satan go to such lengths (Genesis 3 and 6) to corrupt the bloodline of the messiah? And why would Cain not be specifically mentioned in His lineages (Luke 3:23-38, if he was the firstborn son of Adam? Why do you think the Old Testament prophets and patriarchs spent so much time keeping strict record of whom was begotten of whom and what son was born of what father if there was not some deeper meaning to their having done so?
And as far as the semicolon in Genesis 4:1, it is absolutely a big deal especially when one considers that this verse has excluded from it this portion of the text ‘who had desired the Angel’ and also ‘And she added to bear from her husband Adam.’ IV. And Adam knew Hava his wife, who had desired the Angel; and she conceived, and bare Kain; and she said, I have acquired a man, the Angel of the Lord. And she added to bear from her husband Adam his twin, even Habel. – Genesis 4:1, Targum (Aramaic translation of the original Hebrew Torah)The semicolon which specifically means (;) is a punctuation mark that separates major sentence elements. A semicolon can be used between two closely related independent clauses, which in this case denotes the separation of these two clauses in the King James version of this passage, ‘And Adam knew Eve his wife;’, ‘and she conceived, and bare Cain.’ Adam knowing his wife, is not what led to her conceiving and bearing Cain. It was her desiring the angel which led to her conceiving Cain. This distinction has been removed from the King James version of this particular scripture, and so yes the semicolon in this case, is very important for confirming this differentiation. Which is also why this passage is found at the beginning of Genesis four, the chapter in which Cain’s lineages is listed separate from that of the sons of Adam listed in Genesis five. This is also why in the Targum version of Genesis five you have this specifically being mentioned, “And Adam lived a hundred and thirty years, and begat Sheth, who had the likeness of his image and of his similitude: for before had Hava born Kain, who was not like to him; and Habel was killed by his hand. And Kain was cast out; neither is his seed genealogized in the book of the genealogy of Adam. But afterwards there was born one like him, and he called his name Sheth.” This also is excluded from the King James version of Genesis chapter five.
Now in regard to the Hebrew words for fruit, tree, eat of, touch, and seed, that all of these words have specific association with children, descendants, progeny or are in some way associated to a sexual act? The phrase fruit of the tree is Hebrew word # 6529 periy- fruit, which in a wide sense means: a) fruit, produce (of the ground), or b) fruit, offspring, children, progeny (of the womb), or figuratively c) fruit (of actions).
The phrase eat of it is Hebrew word #398; ‘akal (aw-kal’); This word has many uses, but can mean to lay with a woman (a sexual act). Touch is Hebrew word # 5060; naga`(naw-gah’); Properly, to touch, ie: to lay the hand upon (for any purpose); euphemism for: to lie with a woman. Seed is the Hebrew word #2233 zera` which means seed, sowing, offspring, a sowing, seed, semen virile, offspring, descendants, posterity, children. If you really believe that the fruit from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil was somehow related to apple, fig or fruit of some kind, how do you explain their being enmity between the seed of the woman and the seed of the serpent? Why would Adam and Eve after the eating of this fruit cause them to cover their genitals and how in any way would it lead to Eve being pregnant? And why would Paul refer to Eve’s beguilement as corrupting her virginity in 2 Corinthians 11:2-3, the word there being the Greek word exapataō which means to seduce wholly:—beguile, deceive just like the Hebrew word nasha’ in Genesis 3:13 which means to lead astray, i.e. (mentally) to delude, or (morally) to seduce:—beguile, deceive, × greatly, × utterly. Your belief like your previous rebuttal in my opinion, in no way makes any literal or metaphorical sense when regarded in connection to all these things. Which is why I suggest that people investigate this topic thoroughly before making decision as to whether there is something more to it or not.
You will find my reply in the next segment.
A plea: I have to pay for server usage and have made all content on this website free and always will. I support my family on one income and do research, writing, videos, etc. as a hobby. If you can even spare $1.00 as a donation, please do so: it may not seem like much but if each person reading this would do so, even every now and then, it would add up and really, really help out. Here is my donate/paypal page.