In Jehovah Satan? Reviewing the Theosophy article “SATAN: JEHOVAH,” 4 of 4

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Concluding a review of the Theosophy article THE CHRISTIAN SCHEME—SATAN: JEHOVAH (Theosophy, Vol. 57, No. 7, May, 1969). Theosophy is an occult cult founded by Helena Petrovna Blavatsky in 1875.
When all segments are posted, you will be able to find them here.

The article also notes:
“…it’s quite clear that the “Loving Heavenly Father” that Jesus spoke of was not the same Being as the “jealous, vengeful, wrathful God” (Jehovah) of the Old Testament. The words of Jesus in John, ch. 8 seem to present the distinction, in Jesus’ dispute with the Pharisees – a prominent sect of Judaism, naturally devoted wholeheartedly to Jehovah.”
Before getting to John 8, note that utterly myopic nature of such a false dichotomy. The Old Testament is utterly saturated with examples of God’s gracefully forgiving love. He constantly symbolizes Himself as a husband whose wife (Israelites) constantly commits adultery on Him and yet, He constantly seeks her out for reconciliation.
Conversely, Jesus spoke more about hell than anyone else in the whole Bible.

Now, John 8 vss. 38, then 40-42, and then 44 are quoted in the article:
“v. 38 – “I speak that which I have seen with my Father: and you do that which you have seen with your father.”
v. 40 – “But now you seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth, which I have heard from God: Abraham did not do this.” (A very ambiguous statement which can only either mean “Abraham did not seek to kill me” or “Abraham did not hear from God and did not tell you the Truth.”)
v. 41 – “You do the deeds of your father.” Then said they to him, ‘We be not born of fornication; we have one Father, even God.’
v. 42 – “If God were your Father, you would love me.”
v. 44 – “You are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father you will do. He was a murderer from the beginning [see the many vengeful, capricious, and inexplicable deaths attributed to Jehovah from the very first pages of the Old Testament], and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.”

Do I really need to point out that the parenthetical and bracketed statement was added by the article writer?

V. 40 is not as ambiguous as it is symbolic: Abraham did not oppose Jesus about whom He learned under the term “seed,” the seed to come from him. Jesus certainly knew that Abraham heard from God and told the Truth.

The point of the article is that Jesus’ Father is not the same as the Pharisees’ father whose deeds they do, such as attempting to murder Jesus, but they claim theirs really is the “Father, even God” against which Jesus argues since they are of their “father the devil.”

In case you are wondering, the vss. that the article skipped read, “39 They answered and said unto him, Abraham is our father. Jesus saith unto them, If ye were Abraham’s children, ye would do the works of Abraham” and “43 Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word.”

Now, note the, biblical, point of it all: in v. 33 they note, “We be Abraham’s seed” (and it is hilarious when the KJV sounds like Ebonics, nowadays) so they claim to be descendants of Abraham and Jesus agrees, “37 I know that ye are Abraham’s seed” so that is a non-issue.
So, is the issue that both they and Jesus are blood relatives and I dealt with this text in my serpent seed books but the issue becomes whether the point is that they share genetics but that their theology is different, that they worship different gods?

Jesus continued that statement by noting “but ye seek to kill me, because my word hath no place in you.”
So, they are blood relatives but Jesus is making it clear that they should then act like it. Since they are not then God cannot really be their God, in persecuting God’s Messiah, the Son of God, who is God incarnate Himself, they are acting against what theologians would term God’s perfect will even if enacting God’s permissive will.

In order to emphasize the distinction even more, the article notes:
“…how can the Being who menacingly roared the command “Now go, attack the Amalekites and totally destroy everything that belongs to them. Do not spare them; put to death men and women, children and infants, cattle and sheep, camels and donkeys!” (1 Samuel 15:3) be the inspirer of the beautiful and uplifting teachings of Jesus’ Sermon on the Mount?…
Those who have read the Old Testament will no doubt remember that in the incident mentioned above Jehovah commanded his chosen people, the Israelites, to first kill the Egyptians and then rob all the gold, silver, and precious jewels from their corpses. What kind of “god” is this?!?”

The problem with the reasoning is that while we can say that the Pharisees strayed away from the one true God, and His perfect will, they did stray away from the one true God which is the God of the Old Testament, the God of the whole Bible, of Abraham, etc. so that we still cannot draw a distinction between the God of the Old Testament and that God of the New Testament.

But how can this one God command such an attack upon the Amalekites?
The first question is upon what premise do Theosophists condemn it? They do not, they merely emote subjective personal preferences du jour based on hidden assumptions and those assumptions are ultimately stolen from biblical theology in the first place.
You see, they are confusing person-to-person relationships with nation-to-nation ones and they are not necessarily the same. I turn the other check to personal insults such as are implied by being slapped in the face but that is different from the sorts of things whereby one nation harms another.
Moreover, God gave such Goyim/Gentile cultures centuries to repent, generally speaking some of which are actually specified, from their deviant sexual practices (such as bestiality) and manner of worship (such as human/child sacrifice—odd that Theosophists do not seem to have anything to say against that).

Now, did you “no doubt remember” when “Jehovah commanded his chosen people, the Israelites, to first kill the Egyptians and then rob” their “corpses”?
No?
That is because no such thing ever happened.
Those deaths were not caused by the Israelites, who never murdered—not killed—any Egyptians during the exodus events. God did so after giving them many chances to avoid it.
Also, the text tells us, “the children of Israel…borrowed of the Egyptians jewels of silver, and jewels of gold, and raiment: And the Lord gave the people favour in the sight of the Egyptians, so that they lent unto them such things as they required” (Exodus 12:35-36). So, nothing about robbing not corpses.

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