We continue, from part 1, part 2, part 3, part 4, part 5, part 6, part 7, part 8, considering pop-research on the issue of the historical Jesus and Jesus mythicism with regards to some Atheists who have taken to the utterly radical view that Jesus never even existed. I have been considering Michael Paulkovich and Raphael Lataster and, in this case, I got into a comment section discussion within an article written by YouTube celebrity Atheist AaronRa that was simply titled “Jesus never existed” November 3, 2015 AD.
See my article Historical Jesus – two centuries worth of citations wherein I chronicled 205 texts that reference Jesus dating from pre 70 AD to 200-250 AD
We have already seen that a commentator who goes by the pseudonym “rabbit” seemed to be quite pleased with vague statements. In this case, they commented the following:
Jesus was a common name at the time.
I attempted to help with this reply:
Many people may go by the name or nickname or pseudonym “rabbit” but context will determine if the reference is to you or to others. Likewise, the context of the references to Jesus determine who is being referenced.
In turn, they replied thusly:
There seems to be a great deal of disagreement about that very point in this case. It was a very long time and several languages ago.
But this is the very point the context of the references to Jesus determine who is being referenced regardless of the languages.
Well, lorasinger chimes in with the following:
The name Jesus has no intrinsic meaning in Hebrew whatsoever. Yeshua is a Hebrew name which has been transliterated into Greek as Iesous (IhsouV: pronounced ee-ay-SUS or ee-ah-ZOOS). The English “Jesus” comes from the Latin transliteration of the Greek name into the Latin Iesus.
Well, this may be interesting etymology but does nothing to help rabbit, to whom lorasinger was writing, understand that context determines meaning.
Of course, rabbit was quite pleased and wrote:
Thanks! 🙂